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nomanirvana United States. Mar 06 2006 06:55. Posts 2523 | | |
2.50 / 7.25 = 35%
Does that mean I gave him odds for a flush draw? I guess if he calls and hits his flush I have to lay it down and that justifies my underbet on the flop, am I right? Is that just too hard to read?
And I shouldn't have check raised..damn.. |
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| Last edit: 06/03/2006 06:58 |
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nicksson Sweden. Mar 06 2006 06:58. Posts 4662 | | |
yes you gave him odds to call with flushdraw |
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nomanirvana United States. Mar 06 2006 06:59. Posts 2523 | | |
Really? Technically isnt the flush 20% to hit on the turn only and of course if doesnt hit I will bet again... |
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nicksson Sweden. Mar 06 2006 07:04. Posts 4662 | | |
oh thats right, 20%to hit on the turn |
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SakiSaki Sweden. Mar 06 2006 07:05. Posts 9687 | | |
Why did you checkraise the turn? If he made his flush there you could have just called and stacked him on the river?
Just a thought |
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what wackass site is this nigga? | |
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nomanirvana United States. Mar 06 2006 07:05. Posts 2523 | | |
I honestly dont think I gave him odds. I gave him odds assuming I dont bet the turn if the flush doesnt hit. He needs to see the turn/river for the flop price to have the odds. Thats how it looks, im not sure.
Yeah I shouldve just bet the turn. |
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| Last edit: 06/03/2006 07:07 |
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Tchicky United States. Mar 06 2006 07:12. Posts 24 | | |
I think I would have bet a littte more after the flop. Just because of the 2 diamonds that hit on the flop...I like to bet hard in this case. If you get a call you know what he is after. Nice hand though  |
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