most simple of math Q's - Page 2

On October 24 2011 09:20 longple wrote: am i stupid for not understanding anything of anything here?

no, this is above high school math (I hope)

On October 24 2011 10:25 HeRoS)eNGagE wrote: Show nested quote + On October 23 2011 18:09 TalentedTom wrote: yes ''Hi im TalentedTom its a coin flip so ill answer and hope to be right so ill look smart'' xD

Thanks for not mentioning my name in that.

I did realize that the only combination of 200 in the 1-100+1-100 was 100+100 which is a much slimmer chance
than 1 in 200 to occur, but I assumed that the distribution of those odds would equal out since it's equally slim
to roll a number below 50 (1 and 1) but that doesn't even make sense since the "higher than" value is not half the total
available combinations, I have nobody to blame but myself. (And TalentedTom)

i also blame tom for my hasty response.
and ive even been studying pretty hardcore with general probability recently -.-

I remember learning about binomials in either college algebra or statistics 1. I only remembered enough to know that I should post this blog tho

On October 24 2011 12:39 SpasticInk wrote: Show nested quote + On October 24 2011 09:20 longple wrote: am i stupid for not understanding anything of anything here? no, this is above high school math (I hope)

It's entry level college stats.

On October 24 2011 09:20 longple wrote: am i stupid for not understanding anything of anything here?

That's only cuz u prob skimmed it and only looked at it for like 5 secs if you actually read the website I linked to and then follow what I wrote it's really really easy and anyone should be able to understand it.

On October 24 2011 13:46 taco wrote: Show nested quote + On October 24 2011 10:25 HeRoS)eNGagE wrote:   On October 23 2011 18:09 TalentedTom wrote: yes ''Hi im TalentedTom its a coin flip so ill answer and hope to be right so ill look smart'' xD Thanks for not mentioning my name in that. I did realize that the only combination of 200 in the 1-100+1-100 was 100+100 which is a much slimmer chance than 1 in 200 to occur, but I assumed that the distribution of those odds would equal out since it's equally slim to roll a number below 50 (1 and 1) but that doesn't even make sense since the "higher than" value is not half the total available combinations, I have nobody to blame but myself. (And TalentedTom)

The distribution of rolling say a 2 or 200 even out but that saves shortcuts in different questions. For example if the question was "what are the odds random1-100+random1-100 was below 50 or above 150" then you could simply solve for the odds of it being below 50 and multiply that by 2 since the odds of above 150 are the same as below 50 due to symmetry.